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Question 0502a
Sigma Notation
Convergence I
Question
Generate new
A series
∑
r
=
1
n
u
r
{\displaystyle \sum_{r=1}^n u_r}
r
=
1
∑
n
u
r
is given by
∑
r
=
1
n
u
r
=
1
n
!
−
1
n
2
.
\sum_{r=1}^n u_r = \frac{1}{n!} - \frac{1}{n^2}.
r
=
1
∑
n
u
r
=
n
!
1
−
n
2
1
.
Does the series converge?
Attempt
Select the correct option:
Yes it converges
No it diverges
Answer
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